Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 05:59
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Are MAGA the "useful idiots" for the radical-right billionaires like Charles Koch and Elon Musk?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?